Calvinism Refuted

Total hereditary depravity

(or Inherited Sin)

We Speak truth in LOVE

Questions for advocates of inherited sin

  1. Why did Jesus never teach that man was depraved or blamed mans sin on Adam. Rather he always held each man responsible for his own sin.
  2. If every newborn is "utterly indisposed, disabled, and made opposite to all good, and wholly inclined to all evil", then
  3. Why is the Greek word "sarx" (English=flesh, Mistranslated "sinful nature" throughout the NIV) which Calvinists say teaches the inherited depraved sinful nature of man, also used in scripture of Jesus in Heb 2:14; 1 Pe 4:1; 3:18; 1 Jn 4:2?
  4. Why would Jesus not inherit the guilt of sin & depravity from his mother Mary?
  5. If Mary was "conceived sinless" so that Jesus would not get inherited sin then:
  6. What is the difference in "nature" between Adam before his sin, Mary who was "immaculate" and Christians who have their depravity removed, and Jesus?
  7. If baptism removes the depraved nature of man, then why does he continue to sin afterward?
  8. If Adam became depraved only after he sinned, then why did he sin before he was depraved? We sin, it is said, because we are "wholly inclined" towards evil and "utterly indisposed" towards good. That may explain why we sin, but why did Adam sin? Adam was totally hereditarily righteous, yet he still sinned!
  9. If Adam choose to sin while dead to sin, may we not also choose to do right while dead in sin?
  10. If "non-elect" infants do not die in infancy (as E.K Garrett, primitive Baptist taught, using Job 21:7 as his proof text) then were all the babies killed in the flood and in Sodom and Gomorrah elect and predestined to be saved?"

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